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Old 01-30-2009, 09:46 PM
Bhasker C V
 
Default Is this possible ?

hi all,

This did not occur to me for a long time since y'day i noticed this :

$ sudo e2fsck -f /dev/hda1
e2fsck 1.41.2 (02-Oct-2008)
Pass 1: Checking inodes, blocks, and sizes
Pass 2: Checking directory structure
Pass 3: Checking directory connectivity
Pass 4: Checking reference counts
Pass 5: Checking group summary information
/boot: 49/48192 files (26.5% non-contiguous), 57798/96358 blocks
$ sudo file -s /dev/hda1
/dev/hda1: LVM2 (Linux Logical Volume Manager) , UUID: XXXXXX


it shows hda1 as lvm volume but is able to mount it in /boot as an ext3
file system. Also the e2fsck succeeds.


how do i restore hda1 to be a normal ext2 linux partition
PS: fdisk also shows hda1 as type 'linux'


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Bhasker C V
Registered Linux user: #306349 (counter.li.org)
The box said "Requires Windows 95, NT, or better", so I installed Linux.


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Old 01-30-2009, 10:32 PM
Mike Bird
 
Default Is this possible ?

On Fri January 30 2009 14:46:19 Bhasker C V wrote:
> it shows hda1 as lvm volume but is able to mount it in /boot as an ext3
> file system. Also the e2fsck succeeds.

e2fs looks at the beginning of the partition, lvm and md look at the end.

> how do i restore hda1 to be a normal ext2 linux partition

pvremove will remove the LVM label from the end of the partition.

You might want to backup the data first, just to be safe.

--Mike Bird


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Old 01-31-2009, 12:07 AM
Bhasker C V
 
Default Is this possible ?

Mike Bird wrote:

On Fri January 30 2009 14:46:19 Bhasker C V wrote:

it shows hda1 as lvm volume but is able to mount it in /boot as an ext3
file system. Also the e2fsck succeeds.


e2fs looks at the beginning of the partition, lvm and md look at the end.


how do i restore hda1 to be a normal ext2 linux partition


pvremove will remove the LVM label from the end of the partition.

You might want to backup the data first, just to be safe.

--Mike Bird



Great ! it worked ! thanks
Didnt know though that PV looks at the end of the partition (new learning)



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Registered Linux user: #306349 (counter.li.org)
The box said "Requires Windows 95, NT, or better", so I installed Linux.


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Old 05-20-2010, 01:45 PM
 
Default Is this possible ?

Let’s suppose this configuration












|Server1| <----- |Server2| <----- |Client|












A client sends a request that starts a script on Server2.The script ( running on
server2) from this server 2 will download a webpage from Server1.




Is it possible to record Client’s IP on Server1, instead of Server2’s IP? In other
words, Server1 will think the request for downloading is directly from Client.




That is Server2’s IP will be “invisible” for Server1












Is this possbile?




Thanks




Joe.


*




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Old 05-20-2010, 03:47 PM
Anand Sivaram
 
Default Is this possible ?

On Thu, May 20, 2010 at 19:15, <export@hope.cz> wrote:











Let’s suppose this configuration












|Server1| <----- |Server2| <----- |Client|












A client sends a request that starts a script on Server2.The script ( running on
server2) from this server 2 will download a webpage from Server1.




Is it possible to record Client’s IP on Server1, instead of Server2’s IP? In other
words, Server1 will think the request for downloading is directly from Client.




That is Server2’s IP will be “invisible” for Server1












Is this possbile?




Thanks




Joe.


*




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Since it is a different session (because your script on server2 sends the request to server1), it may not be possible. *The ip packet is locally generated on server2 because of the script is trying a request to server1.
Other options are the script may have to embed the ip address somehow to server1. *Or avoid the script on server2 and use NAT there.
 
Old 05-20-2010, 05:13 PM
thib
 
Default Is this possible ?

export@hope.cz wrote:

Is this possbile?


Look at IP address spoofing techniques, it's a broad subject. I would
consider identifying the client at the application level though (add support
for this to your protocol), if possible.


-thib


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Archive: 4BF56DBF.4090105@stammed.net">http://lists.debian.org/4BF56DBF.4090105@stammed.net
 
Old 05-20-2010, 08:39 PM
Mark Allums
 
Default Is this possible ?

On 5/20/2010 8:45 AM, export@hope.cz wrote:

Let’s suppose this configuration

|Server1| <----- |Server2| <----- |Client|

A client sends a request that starts a script on Server2.The script (
running on server2) from this server 2 will download a webpage from
Server1.
Is it possible to record Client’s IP on Server1, instead of Server2’s
IP? In other words, Server1 will think the request for downloading is
directly from Client.
That is Server2’s IP will be “invisible” for Server1

Is this possbile?



The diagram looks like a typical proxying situation. If you are trying
to avoid having someone identify you, it may not work as well as you
would like.


If your goal is transparency, what you can do depends on your level of
access and control of server2. If your goal is of obscurity, it may
work to a degree, but there have been some news stories lately of, for
instance, security researchers identifying the IP of people even though
they went through Tor.


So, yes, it may be possible.

MAA


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Old 05-22-2010, 08:40 PM
Alan Chandler
 
Default Is this possible ?

On 20/05/10 14:45, export@hope.cz wrote:

Let’s suppose this configuration

|Server1| <----- |Server2| <----- |Client|

A client sends a request that starts a script on Server2.The script (
running on server2) from this server 2 will download a webpage from
Server1.
Is it possible to record Client’s IP on Server1, instead of Server2’s
IP? In other words, Server1 will think the request for downloading is
directly from Client.
That is Server2’s IP will be “invisible” for Server1


As others have noted, you don't say what you are really trying to do.
Some have assumed that it's for security reasons. But if it isn't you
can always get Server2 script to add the ipaddress that called it to
some query/post parameters.


--
Alan Chandler
http://www.chandlerfamily.org.uk



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